fixed effects model with a single dummy variable
Posted: Fri Jun 17, 2016 10:38 am
Hi Tom,
I want to examine the effects of the lifting a price ceiling on the demand surplus for a large number of commodities ( two groups). I have the data of weekly demand surplus for 370 commodities (20 weeks ). After the tenth week, the price controls have been lifted and so I introduced a dummy variable taking zero for the first ten weeks and one for the second ten weeks. The results of F-Limer test show that the model should be estimated using a panel model. The results of Hausman test show that for the first group of the commodities (consisted of 200 commodities) the model should be estimated using a fixed effects method and for the other group it should be estimated using a random effects methods.
The question that I have is about the interpretation of fixed effects model. What's a interpretation of a fixed effect model with just a single dummy variable? In the fixed effect model the assumption is that unobserved individual effects are correlated with the explanatory variable. But in my model, the explanatory variable is a dummy variable itself. And the price ceiling have been lifted for all of the commodities.
I think I should use a random effect model because unobserved effects of commodities that affect their demand surplus seem to be uncorrelated with lifting of price ceiling.
I would be grateful if you could possibly guide me through this problem.
I am looking forward to hearing from you as soon as possible.
I want to examine the effects of the lifting a price ceiling on the demand surplus for a large number of commodities ( two groups). I have the data of weekly demand surplus for 370 commodities (20 weeks ). After the tenth week, the price controls have been lifted and so I introduced a dummy variable taking zero for the first ten weeks and one for the second ten weeks. The results of F-Limer test show that the model should be estimated using a panel model. The results of Hausman test show that for the first group of the commodities (consisted of 200 commodities) the model should be estimated using a fixed effects method and for the other group it should be estimated using a random effects methods.
The question that I have is about the interpretation of fixed effects model. What's a interpretation of a fixed effect model with just a single dummy variable? In the fixed effect model the assumption is that unobserved individual effects are correlated with the explanatory variable. But in my model, the explanatory variable is a dummy variable itself. And the price ceiling have been lifted for all of the commodities.
I think I should use a random effect model because unobserved effects of commodities that affect their demand surplus seem to be uncorrelated with lifting of price ceiling.
I would be grateful if you could possibly guide me through this problem.
I am looking forward to hearing from you as soon as possible.